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10 MCQs on Biomechanics (Part-II)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Biomechanics (Part-II). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers (Correct answers in bold)

Q1. The specific gravity of the human body is:

  • 1.995
  • 0.095
  • 0.95
  • 9.05

Q2. Normally in the standing position the centre of gravity lies:

  • 5 cms anterior to second sacral vertebrae
  • 5 cms posterior to second sacral vertebrae
  • Around umblicus
  • 5 cms anterior to second sacral vertebrae

Q3. Vector is a physical force that has:

  • Magnitude
  • Direction
  • Both magnitude and direction
  • Fixed point of application of force

Q4. In second order level the arrangement is:

  • Weight in middle, fulcrum and effort point on either end
  • Fulcrum in middle, weight and effort point on either end
  • Effort point in middle, weight and fulcrum on either end
  • None of the above

Q5. The body’s center of gravity in an adult normally has up and down movements of:

  • 1.5 inch
  • 2.5 inch
  • 3.5 inch
  • 4.5 inch

Q6. A therapist examines joint play movement by placing the joint in resting position. The position is best described as:

  • Maximal congruency between the articular surfaces and joint capsule
  • Minimal congruency between the articular surfaces and the joint capsule
  • Passive separation of the joint surfaces is limited
  • Parallel to the joint treatment line

Q7. If a plumb line is positioned laterally to a patient so it runs along the line of gravity, where should the line fall with respect to the midline of the knee:

  • Anterior
  • Posterior
  • Directly through the knee joint
  • Posterior and medial

Q8. A physical therapist instructs a patient to move her lower teeth forward in relation to the upper teeth. This motion is termed as:

  • Protrusion
  • Retrusion
  • Lateral deviation
  • Occlusal position

Q9. Tests for the length of the hamstrings typically involve stabilisation of the uninvolved leg while raising the leg to be tested. It is important to stabilise the uninvolved leg because it:

  • Prevents excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of lumbar spine
  • Prevents excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive extension of lumbar spine
  • Prevents excessive anterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of lumbar spine
  • Prevents excessive anterior pelvic tilt and excessive extension of lumbar spine

Q10. A physical therapist consistently falls behind with his documentation due to an excessive patient load. The most appropriate action is:

  • Discuss the situation with other staff (physical therapists)
  • Ignore the situation and attempt to complete the documentation in a timely fashion
  • Discuss the situation with immediate supervisor
  • Discuss the situation with the Director of rehabilitation

(Note: Correct answer in bold)

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10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IX)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IX). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Treatment of solitary bone cyst is:

A. Curretage

B. Excision

C. Curretage and bone grafting

D. Irradiation

Q2. The 1st Sign of TB is:

A. Narrowing of intervertebral space

B. Rarefaction of vertebral bodies

C. Destruction of laminae

D. Fusion of spinous processes

Q3. The following are radiological signs of Paget’s disease of bone except:

A. “Cotton wool” appearance

B. “Picture Window Frame” appearance

C. “Hair-on-end” appearance

D. “Blade of grass” appearance

Q4. Following are features of Paget’s disease except:

A. Deformity of bones

B. Secondary osteosarcoma

C. Lowered serum alkaline phosphatase

D. Increased urinary excretion of hydroxyl-proline

Q5. Commonest organism causing osteomyelitis in children under 3 years is:

A. Hemophilus

B. Staphylococcal

C. Streptococcal

D. Salmonella

Q6. Commonest site for acute osteomyelitis in infants is:

A. Hip joint

B. Tibia

C. Femur

D. Radius

Q7. Sun ray appearance is seen in:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Multiple myeloma

D. Osteoclastoma

Q8. Tumor arising from diaphysis:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Osteoclastoma

D. Osteochondroma

Q9. Tumor most sensitive to radiotherapy is:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Chondrosarcoma

D. Osteoclastoma

Q10. Most radiosensitive bone tumor is:

A. Chondrosarcoma

B. Osteoclastoma

C. Ewing’s sarcoma

D. Osteosarcoma

Answers: 1 (C), 2 (B), 3 (C), 4 (C), 5 (B), 6 (B), 7 (A), 8 (B), 9 (B), 10 (C).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VI)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VI). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Commonest degenerative joint disease is:

A. Gout

B. Osteoporosis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Psoriatic arthritis

Q2. Osteoarthritis does not affect:

A. Knee joint

B. Hip joint

C. Interphalangeal joint

D. Metacarpophalangeal joint

E. Shoulder joint

Q3. Treatment of osteoarthritis include all except:

A. Graded muscle exercises

B. Replacement of articular surfaces

C. Correction of deformities

D. Increase the weight bearing by the affected joint

E. Rest to the joint in acute phase

Q4. Avascular necrosis of head of femur can occur in:

A. Sickle cell anemia

B. Caison’s disease

C. Intracapsular fracture neck of femur.

D. Trochanteric fracture

Q5. March fracture is:

A. Stress fracture of neck of second metatarsal

B. Stress fracture of neck of talus

C. Compression fracture of calcaneum

D. Fracture lower end of fibula

Q6. Commonest complication of extra capsular fracture of neck of femur is:

A. Non-union

B. Ischemic necrosis

C. Malunion

D. Pulmonary complications

Q7. The best radiological view for fracture scaphoid is:

A. AP

B. PA

C. Lateral

D. Oblique

Q8. Commonest fracture in childhood is:

A. Femur

B. Distal humerus

C. Clavicle

D. Radius

Q9. Fracture femur in infants is best treated by:

A. Open reduction

B. Closed reduction

C. IM nailing

D. Gallows splinting

Q10. Treatment of fracture patella in 24-year-old young male is:

A. Patellectomy if undisplaced

B. No treatment required

C. Internal fixation if comminuted fracture

D. POP cast in full extension

Answers: 1. (D), 2. (D), 3. (D), 4. (C), 5. (A), 6. (C), 7. (D), 8. (C), 9. (D), 10. (D).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IV)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IV). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Most common nerve damage in shoulder dislocation:

A. Radial nerve

B. Axillary nerve

C. Ulnar nerve

D. Median nerve

Q2. In congenital dislocation of knee deformity seen is:

A. Varus

B. Valgus

C. Flexion

D. Extension

Q3. Earliest visible change in osteoarthritis is:

A. Loss of water

B. Fibrillation

C. Decreased collagen content

D. Decreased hyaluronic acid level

Q4. The most common organism causing hematogenous osteomyelitis in children is:

A. E.coli

B. Tubercle bacillus

C. Salmonella

D. Staphylococcus

Q5. Multiple hereditary osteochondromatosis presents all of the following problems except:

A. Bony swelling over body

B. Joint deformities

C. Leg length discrepancy

D. Anemia and toxemia

Q6. Paraplegia in tuberculosis is most common in which region of the spine?

A. Cervical spine

B. Dorsal spine

C. Lumbar spine

D. Sacral spine

Q7. Gastronemius resection is done most commonly in:

A. CTEV

B. Residual polio

C. Cerebral palsy

D. Arthrogyposis multiplex

Q8. Which of the following is correct female preponderance ratio in DDH?

A. Kyphosis

B. Scoliosis

C. Paraplegia

D. Hormonal

Q9. All are the features of spinal tuberculosis except:

A. Kyphosis

B. Scoliosis

C. Paraplegia

D. Abscess

Q10. The expression knee movements 15-90 degree meant all of the following except:

A. Last 15 degree extension is absent

B. Last 30 degree flexion is absent

C. Free flexion from 15-90 degree

D. Full range of knee movement present

Answers: 1 (B), 2 (D), 3 (B), 4 (D), 5 (D), 6 (B), 7 (A), 8 (D), 9 (B), 10 (D).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-III)

In this article, we will discuss 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-III). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Myositis ossificans traumatica is most frequent in elbow dislocation in which of the following muscles?

A. Triceps

B. Brachioradialis

C. Brachialis

D. Pronator teres

Q2. The attitude policeman taking tip indicates which of the following?

A. High brachial plexus injury

B. Low brachial plexus injury

C. Erb’s palsy

D. Subscapularis paralysis

Q3. Type of nerve lesion in Saturday night palsy most commonly is:

A. Axonotmesis

B. Neurotmesis

C. Neuropraxia

D. Traction injury

Q4. X-ray characteristics of giant cell tumor:

A. Sun ray appearance

B. Onion peel appearance

C. Soap bubble appearance

D. Ground glass appearance

Q5. Prolonged immobilzation can produce all of the following except:

A. Osteoporosis

B. Joint stiffness

C. Kidney stones

D. Gallstones

Q6. The best treatment in flail chest is:

A. Tracheostomy

B. Intercostal drainage

C. Positive pressure respiration

D. Chest binder

Q7. Which of the following is correct in pulled elbow:

A. Dislocation of elbow joint

B. Subluxation of elbow joint

C. Dislocation of radial head

D. Subluxation of proximal radioulnar joint

Q8. The basic cause of Volkmann’s contracture is:

A. Muscle sequestrum formation in flexor pollicis longus and flexor profundus

B. Injury to ulnar and anterior interosseous nerves

C. Injury to vessels

D. Contracture of palmar fascia

Q9. Post-traumatic avascular necrosis of scaphoid is most common in:

A. Proximal pole of scaphoid

B. Waist of scaphoid

C. Distal pole of scaphoid

D. None of the above

Q10. Dupuytren’s contracture is fibrosis of:

A. Palmar fascia

B. Forearm muscles

C. Sartorius fascia

D. None

Answers: 1 (C), 2 (C), 3 (C), 4 (C), 5 (D), 6 (D), 7 (C), 8 (C), 9 (B), 10 (A).

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