Tag: Medical PG

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IX)

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5 Apr 2020

8:22 pm

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Medicine, NEET 2020, NEET PG, Orthopedics, Physiotherapy, SVNIRTAR MPT ENTRANCE EXAM

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In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IX). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Treatment of solitary bone cyst is:

A. Curretage

B. Excision

C. Curretage and bone grafting

D. Irradiation

Q2. The 1st Sign of TB is:

A. Narrowing of intervertebral space

B. Rarefaction of vertebral bodies

C. Destruction of laminae

D. Fusion of spinous processes

Q3. The following are radiological signs of Paget’s disease of bone except:

A. “Cotton wool” appearance

B. “Picture Window Frame” appearance

C. “Hair-on-end” appearance

D. “Blade of grass” appearance

Q4. Following are features of Paget’s disease except:

A. Deformity of bones

B. Secondary osteosarcoma

C. Lowered serum alkaline phosphatase

D. Increased urinary excretion of hydroxyl-proline

Q5. Commonest organism causing osteomyelitis in children under 3 years is:

A. Hemophilus

B. Staphylococcal

C. Streptococcal

D. Salmonella

Q6. Commonest site for acute osteomyelitis in infants is:

A. Hip joint

B. Tibia

C. Femur

D. Radius

Q7. Sun ray appearance is seen in:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Multiple myeloma

D. Osteoclastoma

Q8. Tumor arising from diaphysis:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Osteoclastoma

D. Osteochondroma

Q9. Tumor most sensitive to radiotherapy is:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Chondrosarcoma

D. Osteoclastoma

Q10. Most radiosensitive bone tumor is:

A. Chondrosarcoma

B. Osteoclastoma

C. Ewing’s sarcoma

D. Osteosarcoma

Answers: 1 (C), 2 (B), 3 (C), 4 (C), 5 (B), 6 (B), 7 (A), 8 (B), 9 (B), 10 (C).

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10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VI)

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22 Mar 2020

9:19 pm

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Medicine, NEET 2020, Orthopedics, Physiotherapy

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In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VI). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Commonest degenerative joint disease is:

A. Gout

B. Osteoporosis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Psoriatic arthritis

Q2. Osteoarthritis does not affect:

A. Knee joint

B. Hip joint

C. Interphalangeal joint

D. Metacarpophalangeal joint

E. Shoulder joint

Q3. Treatment of osteoarthritis include all except:

A. Graded muscle exercises

B. Replacement of articular surfaces

C. Correction of deformities

D. Increase the weight bearing by the affected joint

E. Rest to the joint in acute phase

Q4. Avascular necrosis of head of femur can occur in:

A. Sickle cell anemia

B. Caison’s disease

C. Intracapsular fracture neck of femur.

D. Trochanteric fracture

Q5. March fracture is:

A. Stress fracture of neck of second metatarsal

B. Stress fracture of neck of talus

C. Compression fracture of calcaneum

D. Fracture lower end of fibula

Q6. Commonest complication of extra capsular fracture of neck of femur is:

A. Non-union

B. Ischemic necrosis

C. Malunion

D. Pulmonary complications

Q7. The best radiological view for fracture scaphoid is:

A. AP

B. PA

C. Lateral

D. Oblique

Q8. Commonest fracture in childhood is:

A. Femur

B. Distal humerus

C. Clavicle

D. Radius

Q9. Fracture femur in infants is best treated by:

A. Open reduction

B. Closed reduction

C. IM nailing

D. Gallows splinting

Q10. Treatment of fracture patella in 24-year-old young male is:

A. Patellectomy if undisplaced

B. No treatment required

C. Internal fixation if comminuted fracture

D. POP cast in full extension

Answers: 1. (D), 2. (D), 3. (D), 4. (C), 5. (A), 6. (C), 7. (D), 8. (C), 9. (D), 10. (D).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IV)

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15 Mar 2020

9:37 pm

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Medicine, NEET 2020, Orthopedics, Physiotherapy

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In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IV). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Most common nerve damage in shoulder dislocation:

A. Radial nerve

B. Axillary nerve

C. Ulnar nerve

D. Median nerve

Q2. In congenital dislocation of knee deformity seen is:

A. Varus

B. Valgus

C. Flexion

D. Extension

Q3. Earliest visible change in osteoarthritis is:

A. Loss of water

B. Fibrillation

C. Decreased collagen content

D. Decreased hyaluronic acid level

Q4. The most common organism causing hematogenous osteomyelitis in children is:

A. E.coli

B. Tubercle bacillus

C. Salmonella

D. Staphylococcus

Q5. Multiple hereditary osteochondromatosis presents all of the following problems except:

A. Bony swelling over body

B. Joint deformities

C. Leg length discrepancy

D. Anemia and toxemia

Q6. Paraplegia in tuberculosis is most common in which region of the spine?

A. Cervical spine

B. Dorsal spine

C. Lumbar spine

D. Sacral spine

Q7. Gastronemius resection is done most commonly in:

A. CTEV

B. Residual polio

C. Cerebral palsy

D. Arthrogyposis multiplex

Q8. Which of the following is correct female preponderance ratio in DDH?

A. Kyphosis

B. Scoliosis

C. Paraplegia

D. Hormonal

Q9. All are the features of spinal tuberculosis except:

A. Kyphosis

B. Scoliosis

C. Paraplegia

D. Abscess

Q10. The expression knee movements 15-90 degree meant all of the following except:

A. Last 15 degree extension is absent

B. Last 30 degree flexion is absent

C. Free flexion from 15-90 degree

D. Full range of knee movement present

Answers: 1 (B), 2 (D), 3 (B), 4 (D), 5 (D), 6 (B), 7 (A), 8 (D), 9 (B), 10 (D).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-III)

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14 Mar 2020

9:48 pm

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Medicine, NEET 2020, Orthopedics, Physiotherapy

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In this article, we will discuss 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-III). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Myositis ossificans traumatica is most frequent in elbow dislocation in which of the following muscles?

A. Triceps

B. Brachioradialis

C. Brachialis

D. Pronator teres

Q2. The attitude policeman taking tip indicates which of the following?

A. High brachial plexus injury

B. Low brachial plexus injury

C. Erb’s palsy

D. Subscapularis paralysis

Q3. Type of nerve lesion in Saturday night palsy most commonly is:

A. Axonotmesis

B. Neurotmesis

C. Neuropraxia

D. Traction injury

Q4. X-ray characteristics of giant cell tumor:

A. Sun ray appearance

B. Onion peel appearance

C. Soap bubble appearance

D. Ground glass appearance

Q5. Prolonged immobilzation can produce all of the following except:

A. Osteoporosis

B. Joint stiffness

C. Kidney stones

D. Gallstones

Q6. The best treatment in flail chest is:

A. Tracheostomy

B. Intercostal drainage

C. Positive pressure respiration

D. Chest binder

Q7. Which of the following is correct in pulled elbow:

A. Dislocation of elbow joint

B. Subluxation of elbow joint

C. Dislocation of radial head

D. Subluxation of proximal radioulnar joint

Q8. The basic cause of Volkmann’s contracture is:

A. Muscle sequestrum formation in flexor pollicis longus and flexor profundus

B. Injury to ulnar and anterior interosseous nerves

C. Injury to vessels

D. Contracture of palmar fascia

Q9. Post-traumatic avascular necrosis of scaphoid is most common in:

A. Proximal pole of scaphoid

B. Waist of scaphoid

C. Distal pole of scaphoid

D. None of the above

Q10. Dupuytren’s contracture is fibrosis of:

A. Palmar fascia

B. Forearm muscles

C. Sartorius fascia

D. None

Answers: 1 (C), 2 (C), 3 (C), 4 (C), 5 (D), 6 (D), 7 (C), 8 (C), 9 (B), 10 (A).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-I)

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29 Feb 2020

9:33 pm

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Medicine, NEET 2019,NEET-UG 2019, NEET 2019,QUESTION BANK FOR NEET 2019, Orthopedics, Physiotherapy

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In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (For Medical PG entrance exams). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. SOMI brace is:

A. Sterno-occipital mandibular immobilzation

B. Scapulo-occipital manubrium immobilzation

C. Supraobturator muscle immobilzation

D. Scapulo-occipital manipulation instrument

Q2. The primary area of the residual limb used for weight bearing in a transtibial prosthesis is the:

A. Patella tendon

B. Distal end of the residual limb

C. Lateral tibial condyle

D. Fibular head

Q3. Cock-up splint is used in the management of:

A. Ulnar nerve palsy

B. Brachial plexus palsy

C. Radial nerve palsy

D. Combined ulnar and median nerve palsy

Q4. Von Rosen splint is used in:

A. CTEV

B. CDH

C. Fracture shaft of femur

D. Fracture tibia

Q5. Milwaukee brace is used in:

A. Scoliosis

B. Fracture skull

C. Fracture tibia

D. CTEV

Q6. Putti platt surgical procedure to repair recurrent dislocation involves:

A. Shortening of scapularis muscle

B. Shortening of infraspinatus muscle

C. Shortening of supraspinatus muscle

D. Wedge osteotomy of humerus

Q7. People having following tissue types are more prone to have rheumatoid arthritis:

A. HLA-B34

B. HLA-DR4

C. HLA-B27

D. HLA-D27

Q8. Bilateral symmetrical pseudo fractures are seen most commonly in:

A. Multiple myeloma

B. Fibrous dysplasia

C. Osteomalacia

D. Paget’s disease

Q9. The fascia which is generally not involved in Dupuytren’s contracture is:

A. Cleland’s ligament

B. Greyson’s ligament

C. Spiral band

D. All of the above

Q10. The etiology of periarthritis of shoulder is:

A. Degenerative cartilage in glenoid cavity

B. Infection of shoulder joint

C. Fracture of surgical neck of humerus

D. Idiopathic

Answers: 1 (A), 2 (A), 3 (C), 4 (B), 5 (A), 6 (A), 7 (B), 8 (C), 9 (D), 10 (D).