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10 MCQs on Biomechanics (Part-II)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Biomechanics (Part-II). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers (Correct answers in bold)

Q1. The specific gravity of the human body is:

  • 1.995
  • 0.095
  • 0.95
  • 9.05

Q2. Normally in the standing position the centre of gravity lies:

  • 5 cms anterior to second sacral vertebrae
  • 5 cms posterior to second sacral vertebrae
  • Around umblicus
  • 5 cms anterior to second sacral vertebrae

Q3. Vector is a physical force that has:

  • Magnitude
  • Direction
  • Both magnitude and direction
  • Fixed point of application of force

Q4. In second order level the arrangement is:

  • Weight in middle, fulcrum and effort point on either end
  • Fulcrum in middle, weight and effort point on either end
  • Effort point in middle, weight and fulcrum on either end
  • None of the above

Q5. The body’s center of gravity in an adult normally has up and down movements of:

  • 1.5 inch
  • 2.5 inch
  • 3.5 inch
  • 4.5 inch

Q6. A therapist examines joint play movement by placing the joint in resting position. The position is best described as:

  • Maximal congruency between the articular surfaces and joint capsule
  • Minimal congruency between the articular surfaces and the joint capsule
  • Passive separation of the joint surfaces is limited
  • Parallel to the joint treatment line

Q7. If a plumb line is positioned laterally to a patient so it runs along the line of gravity, where should the line fall with respect to the midline of the knee:

  • Anterior
  • Posterior
  • Directly through the knee joint
  • Posterior and medial

Q8. A physical therapist instructs a patient to move her lower teeth forward in relation to the upper teeth. This motion is termed as:

  • Protrusion
  • Retrusion
  • Lateral deviation
  • Occlusal position

Q9. Tests for the length of the hamstrings typically involve stabilisation of the uninvolved leg while raising the leg to be tested. It is important to stabilise the uninvolved leg because it:

  • Prevents excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of lumbar spine
  • Prevents excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive extension of lumbar spine
  • Prevents excessive anterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of lumbar spine
  • Prevents excessive anterior pelvic tilt and excessive extension of lumbar spine

Q10. A physical therapist consistently falls behind with his documentation due to an excessive patient load. The most appropriate action is:

  • Discuss the situation with other staff (physical therapists)
  • Ignore the situation and attempt to complete the documentation in a timely fashion
  • Discuss the situation with immediate supervisor
  • Discuss the situation with the Director of rehabilitation

(Note: Correct answer in bold)

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10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IX)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IX). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Treatment of solitary bone cyst is:

A. Curretage

B. Excision

C. Curretage and bone grafting

D. Irradiation

Q2. The 1st Sign of TB is:

A. Narrowing of intervertebral space

B. Rarefaction of vertebral bodies

C. Destruction of laminae

D. Fusion of spinous processes

Q3. The following are radiological signs of Paget’s disease of bone except:

A. “Cotton wool” appearance

B. “Picture Window Frame” appearance

C. “Hair-on-end” appearance

D. “Blade of grass” appearance

Q4. Following are features of Paget’s disease except:

A. Deformity of bones

B. Secondary osteosarcoma

C. Lowered serum alkaline phosphatase

D. Increased urinary excretion of hydroxyl-proline

Q5. Commonest organism causing osteomyelitis in children under 3 years is:

A. Hemophilus

B. Staphylococcal

C. Streptococcal

D. Salmonella

Q6. Commonest site for acute osteomyelitis in infants is:

A. Hip joint

B. Tibia

C. Femur

D. Radius

Q7. Sun ray appearance is seen in:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Multiple myeloma

D. Osteoclastoma

Q8. Tumor arising from diaphysis:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Osteoclastoma

D. Osteochondroma

Q9. Tumor most sensitive to radiotherapy is:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Chondrosarcoma

D. Osteoclastoma

Q10. Most radiosensitive bone tumor is:

A. Chondrosarcoma

B. Osteoclastoma

C. Ewing’s sarcoma

D. Osteosarcoma

Answers: 1 (C), 2 (B), 3 (C), 4 (C), 5 (B), 6 (B), 7 (A), 8 (B), 9 (B), 10 (C).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VIII)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VIII). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Macewen’s osteotomy is performed in case of:

A. Coxa vara

B. Tibia vara

C. Genu valgum

D. Tom smith disease

Q2. CTEV should be treated at the age of:

A. 10-12 years

B. From the date of birth

C. 2-3 years

D. After epiphyseal fusion

Q3. Syme’s amputation is contraindicated in:

A. Malignancy of big toe

B. Diabetic foot

C. Madhura mycosis foot

D. Crush injury

Q4. Earliest sign of Volkmann’s ischemic contracture is:

A. Pain during passive extension

B. Pulselessness

C. Necrosis of muscle

D. Loss of adduction

Q5. Treatment of chronic cases of club foot is:

A. Triple arthrodesis

B. Dorsomedial release

C. Amputation

D. None

Q6. Treatment for CTEV should start at the age of:

A. 2 weeks

B. 1 month

C. Soon after birth

D. 9 months

Q7. The “Card Test” tests the function of:

A. Median nerve

B. Ulnar nerve

C. Axillary nerve

D. Radial nerve

Q8. Triple deformity of knee is seen in:

A. Polio

B. Tuberculosis

C. Villonodular synovitis

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Q9. Causes of painful limb are all except:

A. Perthe’s disease

B. Congenital coxa vara

C. Slipped femoral epiphysis

D. TB hip

Q10. The complication not common in colle’s fracture is:

A. Malunion

B. Nonunion

C. Sudeck’s atrophy

D. Stiffness of wrist

Answers: 1 (C), 2 (B), 3 (B), 4 (A), 5 (A), 6 (C), 7 (B), 8 (A), 9 (B), 10 (B).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VII)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VII). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Gallow’s traction is given for fracture of:

A. Femur

B. Tibia

C. Humerus

D. Spine

Q2. Who is acclaimed world wide for total joint replacement?

A. Paul Brand

B. John Charnley

C. Paul Harrington

D. Huckstep

Q3. Ossification in fetus starts in:

A. 1 week of intrauterine life

B. 3rd week of intrauterine life

C. 5th week of intrauterine life

D. 5th month of intrauterine life

Q4. In psoriatic arthroplasty the characteristic joint involved is:

A. Proximal interphalangeal joint

B. Distal interphalangeal joint

C. Metacarpophalangeal joint

D. Wrist joint

Q5. Aseptic loosening in cemented total hip replacement, occurs as a result of hypersensitivity response to:

A. Titanium debris

B. High density polythene debris

C. N N- Dimethytryptamine (DMT)

D. Free radicals

Q6. Slipped femoral epiphysis is commonly seen in the:

A. 1st decade

B. 2nd decade

C. 3rd decade

D. 4th decade

Q7. A therapist reviews the surgical report of a patient that sustained extensive burns in a fire. The report indicates that at the time of primary excision cadaver skin was utilised to close the wound. This type of graft is termed as/an:

A. Allograft

B. Autograft

C. Heterograft

D. Xenograft

Q8. Rocker bottom foot results from:

A. Congenital vertical talus

B. Poliomyelitis

C. Club foot over correction

D. Both A and C

Q9. Coxa vara is found in:

A. Perthe’s disease

B. Tuberculosis

C. Rickets

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Q10. A patient presented with claw hand, after supracondylar fracture was reduced and plaster applied. The diagnosis is:

A. Median nerve injury

B. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture

C. Ulnar nerve injury

D. Dupuytren’s contracture

E. Both B and C

Answers: 1 (A), 2 (B), 3 (C), 4 (B), 5 (C), 6 (B), 7 (A), 8 (D), 9 (A), 10 (E).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VI)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VI). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Commonest degenerative joint disease is:

A. Gout

B. Osteoporosis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Psoriatic arthritis

Q2. Osteoarthritis does not affect:

A. Knee joint

B. Hip joint

C. Interphalangeal joint

D. Metacarpophalangeal joint

E. Shoulder joint

Q3. Treatment of osteoarthritis include all except:

A. Graded muscle exercises

B. Replacement of articular surfaces

C. Correction of deformities

D. Increase the weight bearing by the affected joint

E. Rest to the joint in acute phase

Q4. Avascular necrosis of head of femur can occur in:

A. Sickle cell anemia

B. Caison’s disease

C. Intracapsular fracture neck of femur.

D. Trochanteric fracture

Q5. March fracture is:

A. Stress fracture of neck of second metatarsal

B. Stress fracture of neck of talus

C. Compression fracture of calcaneum

D. Fracture lower end of fibula

Q6. Commonest complication of extra capsular fracture of neck of femur is:

A. Non-union

B. Ischemic necrosis

C. Malunion

D. Pulmonary complications

Q7. The best radiological view for fracture scaphoid is:

A. AP

B. PA

C. Lateral

D. Oblique

Q8. Commonest fracture in childhood is:

A. Femur

B. Distal humerus

C. Clavicle

D. Radius

Q9. Fracture femur in infants is best treated by:

A. Open reduction

B. Closed reduction

C. IM nailing

D. Gallows splinting

Q10. Treatment of fracture patella in 24-year-old young male is:

A. Patellectomy if undisplaced

B. No treatment required

C. Internal fixation if comminuted fracture

D. POP cast in full extension

Answers: 1. (D), 2. (D), 3. (D), 4. (C), 5. (A), 6. (C), 7. (D), 8. (C), 9. (D), 10. (D).

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