10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IX)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-IX). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Treatment of solitary bone cyst is:

A. Curretage

B. Excision

C. Curretage and bone grafting

D. Irradiation

Q2. The 1st Sign of TB is:

A. Narrowing of intervertebral space

B. Rarefaction of vertebral bodies

C. Destruction of laminae

D. Fusion of spinous processes

Q3. The following are radiological signs of Paget’s disease of bone except:

A. “Cotton wool” appearance

B. “Picture Window Frame” appearance

C. “Hair-on-end” appearance

D. “Blade of grass” appearance

Q4. Following are features of Paget’s disease except:

A. Deformity of bones

B. Secondary osteosarcoma

C. Lowered serum alkaline phosphatase

D. Increased urinary excretion of hydroxyl-proline

Q5. Commonest organism causing osteomyelitis in children under 3 years is:

A. Hemophilus

B. Staphylococcal

C. Streptococcal

D. Salmonella

Q6. Commonest site for acute osteomyelitis in infants is:

A. Hip joint

B. Tibia

C. Femur

D. Radius

Q7. Sun ray appearance is seen in:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Multiple myeloma

D. Osteoclastoma

Q8. Tumor arising from diaphysis:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Osteoclastoma

D. Osteochondroma

Q9. Tumor most sensitive to radiotherapy is:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Ewing’s sarcoma

C. Chondrosarcoma

D. Osteoclastoma

Q10. Most radiosensitive bone tumor is:

A. Chondrosarcoma

B. Osteoclastoma

C. Ewing’s sarcoma

D. Osteosarcoma

Answers: 1 (C), 2 (B), 3 (C), 4 (C), 5 (B), 6 (B), 7 (A), 8 (B), 9 (B), 10 (C).


10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VIII)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VIII). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Macewen’s osteotomy is performed in case of:

A. Coxa vara

B. Tibia vara

C. Genu valgum

D. Tom smith disease

Q2. CTEV should be treated at the age of:

A. 10-12 years

B. From the date of birth

C. 2-3 years

D. After epiphyseal fusion

Q3. Syme’s amputation is contraindicated in:

A. Malignancy of big toe

B. Diabetic foot

C. Madhura mycosis foot

D. Crush injury

Q4. Earliest sign of Volkmann’s ischemic contracture is:

A. Pain during passive extension

B. Pulselessness

C. Necrosis of muscle

D. Loss of adduction

Q5. Treatment of chronic cases of club foot is:

A. Triple arthrodesis

B. Dorsomedial release

C. Amputation

D. None

Q6. Treatment for CTEV should start at the age of:

A. 2 weeks

B. 1 month

C. Soon after birth

D. 9 months

Q7. The “Card Test” tests the function of:

A. Median nerve

B. Ulnar nerve

C. Axillary nerve

D. Radial nerve

Q8. Triple deformity of knee is seen in:

A. Polio

B. Tuberculosis

C. Villonodular synovitis

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Q9. Causes of painful limb are all except:

A. Perthe’s disease

B. Congenital coxa vara

C. Slipped femoral epiphysis

D. TB hip

Q10. The complication not common in colle’s fracture is:

A. Malunion

B. Nonunion

C. Sudeck’s atrophy

D. Stiffness of wrist

Answers: 1 (C), 2 (B), 3 (B), 4 (A), 5 (A), 6 (C), 7 (B), 8 (A), 9 (B), 10 (B).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VII)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VII). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Gallow’s traction is given for fracture of:

A. Femur

B. Tibia

C. Humerus

D. Spine

Q2. Who is acclaimed world wide for total joint replacement?

A. Paul Brand

B. John Charnley

C. Paul Harrington

D. Huckstep

Q3. Ossification in fetus starts in:

A. 1 week of intrauterine life

B. 3rd week of intrauterine life

C. 5th week of intrauterine life

D. 5th month of intrauterine life

Q4. In psoriatic arthroplasty the characteristic joint involved is:

A. Proximal interphalangeal joint

B. Distal interphalangeal joint

C. Metacarpophalangeal joint

D. Wrist joint

Q5. Aseptic loosening in cemented total hip replacement, occurs as a result of hypersensitivity response to:

A. Titanium debris

B. High density polythene debris

C. N N- Dimethytryptamine (DMT)

D. Free radicals

Q6. Slipped femoral epiphysis is commonly seen in the:

A. 1st decade

B. 2nd decade

C. 3rd decade

D. 4th decade

Q7. A therapist reviews the surgical report of a patient that sustained extensive burns in a fire. The report indicates that at the time of primary excision cadaver skin was utilised to close the wound. This type of graft is termed as/an:

A. Allograft

B. Autograft

C. Heterograft

D. Xenograft

Q8. Rocker bottom foot results from:

A. Congenital vertical talus

B. Poliomyelitis

C. Club foot over correction

D. Both A and C

Q9. Coxa vara is found in:

A. Perthe’s disease

B. Tuberculosis

C. Rickets

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Q10. A patient presented with claw hand, after supracondylar fracture was reduced and plaster applied. The diagnosis is:

A. Median nerve injury

B. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture

C. Ulnar nerve injury

D. Dupuytren’s contracture

E. Both B and C

Answers: 1 (A), 2 (B), 3 (C), 4 (B), 5 (C), 6 (B), 7 (A), 8 (D), 9 (A), 10 (E).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VI)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-VI). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. Commonest degenerative joint disease is:

A. Gout

B. Osteoporosis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Psoriatic arthritis

Q2. Osteoarthritis does not affect:

A. Knee joint

B. Hip joint

C. Interphalangeal joint

D. Metacarpophalangeal joint

E. Shoulder joint

Q3. Treatment of osteoarthritis include all except:

A. Graded muscle exercises

B. Replacement of articular surfaces

C. Correction of deformities

D. Increase the weight bearing by the affected joint

E. Rest to the joint in acute phase

Q4. Avascular necrosis of head of femur can occur in:

A. Sickle cell anemia

B. Caison’s disease

C. Intracapsular fracture neck of femur.

D. Trochanteric fracture

Q5. March fracture is:

A. Stress fracture of neck of second metatarsal

B. Stress fracture of neck of talus

C. Compression fracture of calcaneum

D. Fracture lower end of fibula

Q6. Commonest complication of extra capsular fracture of neck of femur is:

A. Non-union

B. Ischemic necrosis

C. Malunion

D. Pulmonary complications

Q7. The best radiological view for fracture scaphoid is:



C. Lateral

D. Oblique

Q8. Commonest fracture in childhood is:

A. Femur

B. Distal humerus

C. Clavicle

D. Radius

Q9. Fracture femur in infants is best treated by:

A. Open reduction

B. Closed reduction

C. IM nailing

D. Gallows splinting

Q10. Treatment of fracture patella in 24-year-old young male is:

A. Patellectomy if undisplaced

B. No treatment required

C. Internal fixation if comminuted fracture

D. POP cast in full extension

Answers: 1. (D), 2. (D), 3. (D), 4. (C), 5. (A), 6. (C), 7. (D), 8. (C), 9. (D), 10. (D).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-V)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-V). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. A patient status post motor vehicle accident is treated using skeletal traction. What bone when fractured is often associated with this type of traction?

A. Femur

B. Humerus

C. Tibia

D. Fibula

Q2. A therapist examines a patient with bicipital tendonitis. Which clinical finding would you not expect the therapist to identify when examining the patient?

A. Isometric resistance to the biceps brachii increases subjective pain levels

B. Referred pain in the C7-C8 dermatome

C. A painful arc is noted with active range of motion of the involved shoulder

D. Tenderness to palpation over the bicipital tendon

Q3. Patella tracking dysfunction is a common problem in orthopedics. Dynamic factors for patella tracking dysfunction include:

A. Increase in the angulation between the quadriceps muscle and patella tendon.

B. A lateral femoral condyle that is not sufficiently prominent anteriorly.

C. Vastus medialis oblique muscle insufficiency

D. Shallow trochlear groove

Q4. A therapist instructs a patient in residual limb wrapping. Which bandage would be the most appropriate to utilise for a patient with a transfemoral amputation?

A. Two inch

B. Four inch

C. Six inch

D. Eight inch

Q5. A therapist provides preoperative training for a patient scheduled for thoracic surgery. Which activity would be most appropriate to deep vein thrombosis post surgery?

A. Deep breathing

B. Incentive spirometry

C. Coughing

D. Ankle pumps

Q6. A patient rehabilitating from cardiac surgery is monitored using an arterial line. The primary purpose of an arterial line is to:

A. Measure arterial pressure

B. Measure heart rate and oxygen saturation of the blood

C. Measure pulmonary artery pressure

D. Measure blood pressure

Q7. A therapist alerts a nurse to skin breakdown on a patient’s right heel. Which position would leave the patient most susceptible to additional tissue damage?

A. Right side lying

B. Left side lying

C. Prone

D. Supine

Q8. Based on the ‘rule of nines’, an adult who has burns on the anterior right arm, the anterior of the thorax, and the genital region would be classified as having burns over ___ percent of body?

A. 19

B. 2.5

C. 23.5

D. 28

Q9. A patient status post radical mastectomy secondary to breast cancer is referred to physical therapy. Typical intervention includes all of the following except:

A. Monitoring postoperative circumferential measurements

B. Passive and active assistive range of motion

C. Elevation and positioning of the upper extremity

D. Providing pain medication

Q10. A 36-year-old female is limited to 30 degrees of lateral rotation at the right shoulder. Which shoulder mobilisation technique would be the most beneficial to increase lateral rotation?

A. Anterior glide of the humeral head

B. Posterior glide of the humeral head

C. Inferior glide of the humeral head

D. Superior glide of the humeral head.

Answers: 1. (A), 2. (B), 3. (C), 4. (C), 5. (D), 6. (D), 7. (D), 8. (C), 9. (D), 10. (A).