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10 MCQs on Biomechanics (Part-I)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Biomechanics (Part-I). So let’s get started.

Questions and Answers (Correct answers in bold)

Q1. The resting membrane potential if skeletal muscle fiber is:

  • -90 mV
  • -0.9 mV
  • -0.09 mV
  • -0.009 mV

Q2. Conduction of nerve impulses is faster in myelinated nerve because of:

  • Uninterrupted flow of impulse
  • Saltatory conduction
  • Circular current flow
  • Quick reversal of current flow

Q3. Cardiac muscles ability to regenerate is:

  • Partial
  • None
  • Full and complete
  • Variable

Q4. Presence of muscle fibrillation indicates which of the following:

  • Hyperexcitability of motor unit
  • High neural discharge rate
  • Loss of muscle innervation
  • Upper motor neuron defect

Q5. Which type of contraction occurs when the force of the muscles is less than the resistance:

  • Concentric
  • Eccentric
  • Isometric
  • Isokinetic

Q6. The cross-section of muscle is equal to:

  • Length × width
  • Length × 1/2 thickness
  • 2(thickness) ÷ 2(width)
  • Width × thickness

Q7. During rest the flow of blood to muscle is:

  • 3-4 mL/100 gm/min
  • 3-4 mL/100 gm/sec
  • 3-4 mL/10 gm/30 sec
  • 3-4 mL/1000 gm/min

Q8. One of the function of basal ganglia is to:

  • Increase the muscle tone
  • Produce small jerky movements
  • Inhibit stretch reflex
  • Control auditory function

Q9. A patient who recently sustained a gastronemius strain asks a therapist what factors may have contributed to the muscle strain. Which statement does not accurately describe contributing factors to a muscle strain:

  • The muscle may have been poorly prepared due to inadequate warm-up
  • The muscle may have been weakened by a previous injury
  • The muscle may have been exposed to heat which would cause the muscle to be less contractile than normal
  • The muscle may previously have been extensively injured with resultant scar tissue formation

Q10. A 23-year-old suffered from spinal cord injury while rock-climbing and is independent in transfers with assistive devices most likely spinal cord level involved is:

  • C5
  • C6
  • C7
  • T1

(Note: Correct answers in bold)

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10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-II)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-II). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. In talipes equinovarus foot is in:

A. Plantarflexion and eversion

B. Dorsiflexion and eversion

C. Plantarflexion and inversion

D. Dorsiflexion and inversion

Q2. Which of the following is true for carpal compression syndrome:

A. Ulnar compression at wrist

B. Ulnar compression at elbow

C. Median compression at wrist

D. Median compression at elbow

Q3. An old epileptic patient presented with a complaint of pain in both temporal regions and inability to close her mouth an after episode of fit. The patient had similar problem 3 times in the past, which of the following would be confirmatory for definite diagnosis:

A. History

B. Blood and urine examination

C. X-ray and CT scan

D. Ultrasound

Q4. Which of the following tendon is most commonly ruptured in rheumatoid disease:

A. Abductor pollicis longus

B. Extensor pollicis brevis

C. Extensor pollicis longus

D. Extensor indices

Q5. In the evaluation of an infant, Barlow’s provocative test result is positive. This is an indication of:

A. Hip instability

B. Knee instability

C. Shoulder instability

D. Wrist instability

Q6. Erb’s palsy is due to injury of:

A. Head involving premotor area

B. Pelvis involving lumbosacral plexus

C. Thorax involving diaphragm

D. Upper roots of brachial plexus involving C5,6

Q7. The following topical antibiotic agent is used in treatment of burn wounds:

A. Potassium permanganate

B. Betnovate

C. Silver sulfadiazine

D. Acetylsalcylate

Q8. A man slipped while walking developed swelling immediately in the knee joint. Structure most probably injured is:

A. Anterior cruciate ligament

B. Medial meniscus

C. Lateral meniscus

D. Collateral ligaments

Q9. The position of lower limb in osteoarthritis is:

A. Flexion adduction internal rotation

B. Extension adduction external rotation

C. Flexion abduction external rotation

D. Flexion adduction internal rotation

Q10. Ganglion is most commonly seen over:

A. Dorsal aspect of wrist

B. Volar aspect of wrist

C. Over forehead

D. Dorsum of tongue

Answers: 1 (C), 2 (C), 3 (C), 4 (D), 5 (A), 6 (D), 7 (C), 8 (A), 9 (C), 10 (A).

10 MCQs on Orthopedics (Part-I)

In this article, we will solve 10 MCQs on Orthopedics (For Medical PG entrance exams). So, let’s get started.

Questions and Answers

Q1. SOMI brace is:

A. Sterno-occipital mandibular immobilzation

B. Scapulo-occipital manubrium immobilzation

C. Supraobturator muscle immobilzation

D. Scapulo-occipital manipulation instrument

Q2. The primary area of the residual limb used for weight bearing in a transtibial prosthesis is the:

A. Patella tendon

B. Distal end of the residual limb

C. Lateral tibial condyle

D. Fibular head

Q3. Cock-up splint is used in the management of:

A. Ulnar nerve palsy

B. Brachial plexus palsy

C. Radial nerve palsy

D. Combined ulnar and median nerve palsy

Q4. Von Rosen splint is used in:

A. CTEV

B. CDH

C. Fracture shaft of femur

D. Fracture tibia

Q5. Milwaukee brace is used in:

A. Scoliosis

B. Fracture skull

C. Fracture tibia

D. CTEV

Q6. Putti platt surgical procedure to repair recurrent dislocation involves:

A. Shortening of scapularis muscle

B. Shortening of infraspinatus muscle

C. Shortening of supraspinatus muscle

D. Wedge osteotomy of humerus

Q7. People having following tissue types are more prone to have rheumatoid arthritis:

A. HLA-B34

B. HLA-DR4

C. HLA-B27

D. HLA-D27

Q8. Bilateral symmetrical pseudo fractures are seen most commonly in:

A. Multiple myeloma

B. Fibrous dysplasia

C. Osteomalacia

D. Paget’s disease

Q9. The fascia which is generally not involved in Dupuytren’s contracture is:

A. Cleland’s ligament

B. Greyson’s ligament

C. Spiral band

D. All of the above

Q10. The etiology of periarthritis of shoulder is:

A. Degenerative cartilage in glenoid cavity

B. Infection of shoulder joint

C. Fracture of surgical neck of humerus

D. Idiopathic

Answers: 1 (A), 2 (A), 3 (C), 4 (B), 5 (A), 6 (A), 7 (B), 8 (C), 9 (D), 10 (D).

NEET-UG 2019

For all the medical aspirants NEET-UG 2019 will be conducted on 5th May 2019.

Date of Registration- 01-30 Nov 2018

Date of Admit Card- 15 Apr 2019

Date of Exam- 05 May 2019

Latest Update
NEET Merit list will now be used to allot 15% All Indian Quota seats in Veterinary colleges for UG course BVSc&AH.

Expected Rank and Marks

As per statistics available candidates scoring 610+ marks is expected to rank in top 100, 550+ marks candidates is expected to be ranked in top 1000, 480+ marks candidates is expected to be ranked in top 10000. In total 216 government medical colleges there are 30,455 seats available and based on this analysis, candidates scoring 415+ marks are expected to be ranked in top 30000.

Apart from this minimum qualifying marks out of 720 is 360 for General, 288 for SC/ST/OBC and 324 for PH.

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